HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?
- A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
- C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
- D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.
2. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration (MEC) of antibiotics. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of this concept?
- A. A serum drug level greater than the MEC ensures that the drug is bacteriostatic.
- B. A serum drug level greater than the MEC broadens the spectrum of the drug.
- C. A serum drug level greater than the MEC helps eradicate bacterial infections.
- D. A serum drug level greater than the MEC increases the therapeutic index.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The MEC is the minimum amount of drug needed to halt the growth of a microorganism. A level greater than the MEC helps eradicate infections. Drugs at or above the MEC are usually bactericidal, not bacteriostatic. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Broadening the spectrum of a drug refers to its range of activity against different microorganisms, which is not directly related to MEC. Thus, choice B is incorrect. Increasing the therapeutic index involves maximizing the effectiveness of a drug while minimizing its toxicity, which is not specifically related to MEC. Therefore, choice D is also incorrect.
3. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering bronchodilators.
- B. Administering antibiotics.
- C. Administering IV fluids.
- D. Administering corticosteroids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.
4. A client is returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should tell the client:
- A. To resume full activity the next day
- B. Not to eat or drink anything until the next morning
- C. To keep the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day
- D. To report to the physician the development of fever or redness and heat at the site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After arthroscopy, it is important for the client to report any signs of infection, such as the development of fever or redness and heat at the site, to the physician promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. The client should not resume full activity the next day as rest and limited movement are usually recommended post-arthroscopy. It is not necessary to withhold food or fluids until the next morning; the client may resume the usual diet immediately unless otherwise instructed. While immobilization may be recommended for a period, keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day is not typically necessary post-arthroscopy.
5. The client has had a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 6 hours ago. Which assessment provides the most accurate information about the client's postoperative status?
- A. Radial pulse.
- B. Femoral pulse.
- C. Apical pulse.
- D. Dorsalis pedis pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse is crucial after a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery to determine adequate circulation distal to the surgical site. A strong dorsalis pedis pulse indicates sufficient blood flow to the foot, which is essential for monitoring postoperative status. The radial pulse (A) is not the most relevant assessment as it does not provide direct information on circulation in the lower extremities. The femoral pulse (B) may not accurately reflect circulation distal to the surgical site. The apical pulse (C) is used primarily to assess the heartbeat and cardiac function, not circulation in the lower extremities.
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