HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?
- A. Headaches
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Superinfection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.
2. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?
- A. Elevated creatinine levels.
- B. Low potassium levels.
- C. Low calcium levels.
- D. High sodium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.
3. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
- B. Use intermittent catheterization.
- C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
- D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.
4. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?
- A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
- B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
- D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.
5. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower leg is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following assessments is the most important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
- B. Assess for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important assessment for a client with DVT on heparin therapy is to monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Assessing for bleeding is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. Measuring the circumference of the leg may be relevant for assessing for edema but is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and respiratory status are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client is on heparin therapy for DVT.
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