Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

2. A client with COPD and a history of emphysema presents with increasing shortness of breath. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's distress.
• B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds and oxygen saturation.
• C. Determine if the client is experiencing anxiety.
• D. Assess the oxygen delivery system.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to auscultate the client's lung sounds and oxygen saturation. This helps in assessing the respiratory status of the client, which is crucial in managing COPD and emphysema exacerbations. Checking for any abnormalities in lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation levels can provide important information for immediate intervention. Option A is not the first action to take in this situation as directly assessing the client's respiratory status is more immediate. Option C, determining if the client is experiencing anxiety, is important but should come after assessing the physical respiratory status. Option D, assessing the oxygen delivery system, is also essential but should follow the direct assessment of the client's respiratory status.

3. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks, delegated to a UAP, indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process?

• A. Assist a client post cerebral vascular accident to ambulate
• B. Feed a 2-year-old in balanced skeletal traction
• C. Care for a client with discharge orders
• D. Collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Caring for a client with discharge orders involves tasks that require critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are beyond the scope of a UAP. Delegating this task to a UAP can compromise patient safety and outcomes. The correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate tasks to delegate to a UAP based on their training and scope of practice. Assisting a client to ambulate, feeding a pediatric patient in traction, and collecting a sputum specimen are tasks that can be safely performed by a UAP under appropriate supervision.

4. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

• A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
• B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
• C. The client will perform foot care daily
• D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.

5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
• C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
• D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.

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