Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

2. A client was just taken off the ventilator after surgery and has a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?

• A. Allow the client to melt ice chips in the mouth
• B. Provide mints to freshen the breath
• C. Perform frequent oral care with a tooth sponge
• D. Swab the mouth with glycerin swabs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure in this scenario. This helps maintain comfort and prevent dryness in clients with nasogastric tubes. Allowing the client to melt ice chips in the mouth may not address oral care needs effectively. Providing mints to freshen the breath is not the priority when the client needs oral care. Swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not be as effective as performing thorough oral care with a tooth sponge.

3. A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?

• A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
• B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
• D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.

4. A client with a colostomy is being discharged. What teaching is most important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Change the ostomy bag daily to prevent skin irritation.
• B. Avoid foods that can cause gas, such as broccoli.
• C. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full.
• D. Use a skin barrier to protect the surrounding skin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important teaching for a client with a colostomy is to empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full. This practice helps prevent leakage and skin irritation by maintaining the proper seal of the pouching system. Changing the ostomy bag daily (Choice A) is not necessary unless it leaks or becomes loose. Avoiding gas-producing foods (Choice B) is essential for some clients but is not the most important teaching. Using a skin barrier (Choice D) is important but not as crucial as emptying the ostomy pouch at the right time to prevent complications.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
• C. Barrel chest appearance
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.

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