Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

2. A client is experiencing chest pain and is prescribed nitroglycerin. What should the nurse assess before administering the medication?

• A. Monitor the client’s oxygen saturation level.
• B. Check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Evaluate the client’s level of consciousness.
• D. Assess the client's chest pain severity using a pain scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering nitroglycerin, it is crucial to check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure and heart rate, so assessing these parameters is essential to prevent exacerbating hypotension or bradycardia. While monitoring the client’s oxygen saturation level is important in some situations, it is not the primary assessment needed before administering nitroglycerin. Evaluating the client’s level of consciousness is relevant for other conditions but not specifically necessary before giving nitroglycerin. Assessing chest pain severity using a pain scale is valuable for pain management but is not the priority assessment before administering nitroglycerin.

3. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

• A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
• B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
• C. The client will perform foot care daily
• D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.

4. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

• A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
• C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

5. A client is admitted with a suspected bowel obstruction. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Absent bowel sounds in all quadrants.
• B. Distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel.
• C. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting.
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel is a concerning sign that suggests a complication such as bowel perforation, which requires immediate intervention. Absent bowel sounds can be expected in bowel obstructions but are not as urgent as a rigid abdomen. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting are common with bowel obstructions but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping are more indicative of bowel obstruction rather than a complication requiring immediate attention.

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