Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

2. A client with hyperparathyroidism is preparing for surgery. Which preoperative lab finding is most important to report?

• A. Elevated serum calcium.
• B. Decreased serum albumin.
• C. Elevated serum potassium.
• D. Elevated serum magnesium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated serum calcium. In hyperparathyroidism, elevated calcium levels can lead to complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, and fractures. During surgery, high calcium levels can affect neuromuscular function, cardiac function, and blood clotting. Therefore, it is crucial to report elevated serum calcium levels preoperatively to prevent potential surgical complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism and are less likely to impact the surgical outcome in this scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• B. The client reports feeling weak and shaky
• C. The TPN bag is 5% dextrose
• D. The client reports feeling thirsty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weakness and shakiness can indicate hypoglycemia, a potential complication of TPN. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess blood glucose levels and provide treatment as needed. Choice A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a 5% dextrose TPN bag is a standard concentration. Choice D is also incorrect as feeling thirsty is not a critical assessment finding requiring immediate intervention in this context.

4. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water
• B. Instruct the parent about tetanus boosters
• C. Apply a sterile dressing and refer for a tetanus booster
• D. Elevate the foot and wrap in a compression bandage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.

5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

Similar Questions