HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. The father of a 4-year-old has been battling metastatic lung cancer for the past 2 years. After discussing the remaining options with his healthcare provider, the client requests that all treatment stop and that no heroic measures be taken to save his life. When the client is transferred to the palliative care unit, which action is most important for the nurse working on the palliative care unit to take in facilitating continuity of care?
- A. Ensure the client's family is aware of the client's wishes
- B. Begin comfort measures immediately
- C. Obtain a detailed report from the nurse transferring the client
- D. Confirm that the client understands the treatment plan
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a detailed report from the previous nurse ensures continuity of care and that all relevant information is passed on. This is critical in palliative care, where comfort measures and symptom management are key components of care. Choice A is not the most important action in this scenario, as the question focuses on continuity of care within the healthcare team. Beginning comfort measures immediately, as in choice B, is essential but obtaining a detailed report takes precedence to ensure a smooth transition of care. Confirming that the client understands the treatment plan, as in choice D, is important but does not directly address the need for continuity of care through a detailed report.
2. A client with COPD and a history of emphysema presents with increasing shortness of breath. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's distress.
- B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds and oxygen saturation.
- C. Determine if the client is experiencing anxiety.
- D. Assess the oxygen delivery system.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to auscultate the client's lung sounds and oxygen saturation. This helps in assessing the respiratory status of the client, which is crucial in managing COPD and emphysema exacerbations. Checking for any abnormalities in lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation levels can provide important information for immediate intervention. Option A is not the first action to take in this situation as directly assessing the client's respiratory status is more immediate. Option C, determining if the client is experiencing anxiety, is important but should come after assessing the physical respiratory status. Option D, assessing the oxygen delivery system, is also essential but should follow the direct assessment of the client's respiratory status.
3. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following should be the nurse's first priority?
- A. The client will maintain adequate nutrition.
- B. The client will manage side effects of treatment.
- C. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of infection.
- D. The client will experience a reduction in pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Recognizing signs and symptoms of infection should be the nurse's first priority when developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often compromises the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Early identification and prompt treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but recognizing signs of infection takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening consequences in clients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.
4. A client with hypertension has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Monitor heart rate regularly
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase fluid intake to avoid dehydration
- D. Take the medication with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can cause bradycardia, so it is important for the client to monitor their heart rate regularly. This helps detect any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to avoid potassium-rich foods with calcium channel blockers. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake is not specifically related to calcium channel blockers. Choice D is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are usually taken with or without food, depending on the specific medication, but not specifically on an empty stomach.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
- B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
- C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.
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