HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. The nurse reviews the diagnostic tests prescribed for a client with a positive skin test. Which subjective findings reported by the client support the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
- A. Mucopurulent cough and night sweats
- B. Fatigue and headache
- C. Persistent cough and weight gain
- D. Weight loss and fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A mucopurulent cough and night sweats are hallmark signs of active tuberculosis. These symptoms are key indicators of TB as the combination of a productive cough with night sweats is highly suggestive of the disease. Fatigue and headache (choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in many conditions and are not specific to TB. Persistent cough and weight gain (choice C) are not typical findings in tuberculosis. Weight loss and fever (choice D) can be present in TB, but the specific combination of mucopurulent cough and night sweats is more specific to the diagnosis.
2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?
- A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
- B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
- C. The client will perform foot care daily
- D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most important to promote effective breathing?
- A. Encourage diaphragmatic breathing
- B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
- C. Have the client perform range of motion exercises
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging diaphragmatic breathing is crucial in clients with COPD as it helps improve lung expansion and oxygen exchange, promoting more effective breathing. This intervention aids in reducing dyspnea and enhancing ventilation. Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate may not be appropriate and can potentially worsen hypercapnia in individuals with COPD. Performing range of motion exercises and placing the client in a supine position do not directly address the breathing difficulties associated with COPD exacerbation.
4. Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?
- A. Avoid all protein-rich foods.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day.
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent weakness.
- D. Eat small, frequent meals high in carbohydrates.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important dietary instruction for a client with renal disease is to limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day. This is essential to prevent fluid overload, manage electrolyte balance, and reduce strain on the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because while protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, avoiding all protein-rich foods is not recommended as some protein intake is essential for overall health. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake is generally not advised for clients with renal disease, as they often need to limit potassium intake. Choice D is also incorrect because while consuming small, frequent meals may be helpful, emphasizing a diet high in carbohydrates is not typically the primary focus for clients with renal disease.
5. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?
- A. The client reports feeling short of breath.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
- D. The client is unable to complete sentences without pausing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.
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