the nurse reviews the diagnostic tests prescribed for a client with a positive skin test which subjective findings reported by the client support the
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The nurse reviews the diagnostic tests prescribed for a client with a positive skin test. Which subjective findings reported by the client support the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mucopurulent cough and night sweats are hallmark signs of active tuberculosis. These symptoms are key indicators of TB as the combination of a productive cough with night sweats is highly suggestive of the disease. Fatigue and headache (choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in many conditions and are not specific to TB. Persistent cough and weight gain (choice C) are not typical findings in tuberculosis. Weight loss and fever (choice D) can be present in TB, but the specific combination of mucopurulent cough and night sweats is more specific to the diagnosis.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.

3. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

4. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

5. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.

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