Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Loosen the right wrist restraint.
• B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand.
• C. Compare hand color bilaterally.
• D. Palpate the right radial pulse.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A) because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicate decreased circulation. Comparing hand color bilaterally (C) and palpating the right radial pulse (D) are important assessments to gather more information, but they do not have the priority of addressing the decreased circulation by loosening the restraint. Applying a pulse oximeter (B) is not indicated in this scenario as it measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, which is not relevant when cyanosis is related to mechanical compression from the restraints.

2. The patient had a CVA and developed right-sided hemiplegia. Which action is least appropriate for the nurse to take?

• A. Performing ROM exercises during bathing.
• B. Changing the patient's position every two hours.
• C. Suctioning the patient supine and tightly pulling the bed sheets across their feet.
• D. Placing the patient in the prone position for one hour three times a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the patient in a supine position and pulling the bed sheets tightly across their feet can lead to foot drop, which is harmful for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia. This action can exacerbate muscle weakness and impair circulation in the affected limb. It is crucial to avoid actions that may compromise the patient's safety and well-being, such as causing foot drop in this scenario.

3. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

4. When assessing for orthostatic hypotension during blood pressure measurement, what action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Position the client supine for a few minutes
• B. Assist the client to stand at the bedside
• C. Apply the blood pressure cuff securely
• D. Record the client’s pulse rate and rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for orthostatic hypotension, the initial step is to position the client supine for a few minutes. This allows the body to adjust to the supine position before assessing blood pressure changes that may indicate orthostatic hypotension. By observing the blood pressure after the client has rested supine, the nurse can accurately assess for any drop in blood pressure upon standing, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the initial step in assessing for orthostatic hypotension, which is ensuring the client is positioned correctly to detect blood pressure changes upon standing.

5. The client reports still being unable to sleep a week after learning progressive muscle relaxation techniques. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to add regular exercise to the daily routine.
• B. Determine if the client has been keeping a sleep diary.
• C. Encourage the client to continue the routine until sleep is achieved.
• D. Ask the client to describe the routine currently followed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine, the nurse can evaluate if the technique is being correctly implemented before considering further interventions. This choice is correct as it focuses on assessing the client's current practice. Option A is incorrect as adding regular exercise may not address the issue with the relaxation technique. Option B is incorrect as determining if the client has been keeping a sleep diary does not directly address the efficacy of the relaxation technique. Option C is incorrect as blindly encouraging the client to continue may not be the best approach without understanding how the technique is being practiced.

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