Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Loosen the right wrist restraint.
• B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand.
• C. Compare hand color bilaterally.
• D. Palpate the right radial pulse.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A) because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicate decreased circulation. Comparing hand color bilaterally (C) and palpating the right radial pulse (D) are important assessments to gather more information, but they do not have the priority of addressing the decreased circulation by loosening the restraint. Applying a pulse oximeter (B) is not indicated in this scenario as it measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, which is not relevant when cyanosis is related to mechanical compression from the restraints.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client signs the consent form.
• B. Review the client's allergies with the surgical team.
• C. Confirm the client's identity using two identifiers.
• D. Verify that the surgical site is marked.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring that the client signs the consent form (A) is the most crucial action before surgery. The consent form is legally and ethically necessary for the procedure to proceed. While reviewing allergies (B), confirming identity (C), and verifying the surgical site (D) are essential steps, obtaining the client's informed consent takes precedence to protect the client's rights and ensure a safe surgical experience.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
• B. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase protein intake to promote healing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams per day (B) is a crucial dietary instruction for clients with heart failure. It helps manage fluid retention and reduces the workload on the heart. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, worsening heart failure symptoms. Increasing fluid intake (A) can further exacerbate fluid overload in heart failure patients. Avoiding foods high in potassium (C) is not necessary unless the client has hyperkalemia; in heart failure, potassium restriction is not a primary dietary concern. Increasing protein intake (D) is not the priority for heart failure management; focusing on sodium restriction is more beneficial.

4. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

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