Nursing Elites

1. While suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the client starts to cough. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Suction deeper to remove secretions.
• B. Gently withdraw suction tubing to allow suction or coughing out of mucus.
• C. Remove the suction as quickly as possible.
• D. Insert and remove the suction multiple times to clear secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client coughs during tracheostomy tube suctioning, the nurse should gently withdraw the suction tubing. This action allows the client to cough out mucus naturally, reducing the risk of further irritation and promoting effective airway clearance. Choice A is incorrect because suctioning deeper can cause trauma and increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as removing the suction quickly may not allow the client to clear the mucus adequately. Choice D is incorrect as inserting and removing the suction multiple times can lead to unnecessary trauma and discomfort for the client.

2. An older female client with rheumatoid arthritis is complaining of severe joint pain that is caused by the weight of the linen on her legs. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Apply flannel pajamas to provide warmth.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of ibuprofen.
• C. Perform range of motion exercises in a warm tub.
• D. Drape the sheets over the footboard of the bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should first address the immediate comfort concern of the client, which is the weight of the linen on her legs causing severe joint pain. By draping the sheets over the footboard of the bed rather than tucking them under the mattress, the nurse can alleviate the pressure that the client perceives as the source of her pain. This action is a simple and effective way to provide relief and should be the initial step taken by the nurse. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the client's immediate discomfort caused by the weight of the linen on her legs, making them less appropriate initial actions.

3. The healthcare professional is monitoring a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which assessment finding should prompt the healthcare professional to immediately stop the infusion?

• A. The client reports pain at the IV site
• B. The client’s heart rate is irregular
• C. The client has swelling at the IV site
• D. The client’s blood pressure is elevated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An irregular heart rate is a critical sign of hyperkalemia, a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Stopping the infusion promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. The healthcare professional should inform the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because pain at the IV site is common and may not necessitate stopping the infusion. Choice C is incorrect as swelling at the IV site may indicate a local reaction but is not a reason to stop the infusion. Choice D is incorrect as an elevated blood pressure alone is not a direct indication to stop the infusion of IV potassium chloride.

4. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Obtain informed consent from the client for the PRBC transfusion
• B. Review the client’s medical history for a history of transfusion reactions
• C. Assess the client’s baseline vital signs before starting the transfusion
• D. Verify the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions and ensure the client's safety. This step helps confirm that the correct blood type is being transfused to the client, reducing the risk of adverse reactions and promoting safe care. Obtaining informed consent (Choice A) is important but not directly related to ensuring the safety of the transfusion. Reviewing the client's medical history for transfusion reactions (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as verifying the blood type and crossmatching. Assessing baseline vital signs (Choice C) is a routine practice before transfusion but ensuring the correct blood type is a higher priority.

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