HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. While suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the client starts to cough. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Suction deeper to remove secretions.
- B. Gently withdraw suction tubing to allow suction or coughing out of mucus.
- C. Remove the suction as quickly as possible.
- D. Insert and remove the suction multiple times to clear secretions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client coughs during tracheostomy tube suctioning, the nurse should gently withdraw the suction tubing. This action allows the client to cough out mucus naturally, reducing the risk of further irritation and promoting effective airway clearance. Choice A is incorrect because suctioning deeper can cause trauma and increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as removing the suction quickly may not allow the client to clear the mucus adequately. Choice D is incorrect as inserting and removing the suction multiple times can lead to unnecessary trauma and discomfort for the client.
2. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?
- A. 75 ml/hr
- B. 150 ml/hr
- C. 225 ml/hr
- D. 300 ml/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 × 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.
3. When planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Self-care deficit
- B. Functional incontinence
- C. Fluid volume deficit
- D. High risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The highest priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is 'High risk for infection.' Indwelling urinary catheters pose a significant risk of infection due to their direct contact with the urinary system. Preventing and managing infections is crucial in the care of these clients. Monitoring for signs of infection, following proper catheter care protocols, and maintaining aseptic technique during catheter maintenance are essential steps to prevent complications associated with catheter-related infections. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because in this case, the immediate concern is the risk of infection associated with the presence of the urinary catheter. While self-care deficit, functional incontinence, and fluid volume deficit are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not as critical as preventing potentially serious infections related to the indwelling urinary catheter.
4. The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new diagnosis of asthma. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should use my inhaler as soon as I begin to feel short of breath.
- B. I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack.
- C. I should use my inhaler 30 minutes before exercise.
- D. I should rinse my mouth after using my inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack' (B) indicates a need for further teaching. It is important for clients to use their inhaler as prescribed, which may include regular use to prevent asthma attacks. Choice A is correct because using the inhaler when feeling short of breath can help manage asthma symptoms. Choice C is also correct as using the inhaler before exercise can prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice D is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps prevent oral thrush, a potential side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Therefore, option B is the most concerning statement that needs clarification.
5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
- B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
- C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
- D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.
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