the nurse is counting a clients respiratory rate during a 30 second interval the nurse counts six respirations and the client coughs three times in re
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Test

1. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.

2. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

3. A client is admitted with a fever of unknown origin. To assess fever patterns, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess fever patterns accurately, the nurse should measure the client’s temperature at regular intervals. This approach helps in identifying the pattern of fever spikes and fluctuations, which can provide valuable information for diagnostic and treatment purposes. Assessing for flushed, warm skin or documenting circadian rhythms may not directly reveal the fever pattern, while varying temperature measurement sites could lead to inconsistent readings. Therefore, measuring temperature at regular intervals is the most appropriate intervention to identify fever patterns in this scenario.

4. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

5. When discussing dietary preferences with a client adhering to a vegan diet, which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include in the dietary plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient predominantly found in animal products. Individuals following a vegan diet, which excludes animal products, are at a higher risk of vitamin B12 deficiency. Encouraging the client to include a vitamin B12 supplement in their dietary plan is crucial to prevent deficiency-related health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not specific to addressing the deficiency that vegan diets may cause. Fiber, folate, and ascorbic acid are important but do not directly address the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency in vegan diets.

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