Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.

2. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

3. Which of these findings would the nurse most closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
• C. Hypoactivity
• D. A heart rate between 140 to 160

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips is a classic sign of anemia in infants, indicating a lack of sufficient red blood cells. This finding is due to decreased hemoglobin levels, which causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to anemia in infants. While a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL may be within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant, the presence of pale mucosa is a more indicative sign of anemia.

4. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
• B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
• C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
• D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
• B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
• C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
• D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.

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