the nurse is about to assess a 6 month old child with nonorganic failure to thrive noftt upon entering the room the nurse would expect the baby to be
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. The nurse is about to assess a 6-month-old child with nonorganic failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would expect the baby to be

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive often appears pale, thin, and uninterested in their surroundings. Choice A is incorrect as 'irritable and colicky with no attempts to pull to standing' is more indicative of other conditions like colic. Choice B is incorrect as a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive is unlikely to be alert, laughing, and playing, as they would typically present with signs of failure to thrive. Choice C is incorrect as dusky skin color and poor skin turgor are not typical findings in a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which of these assessments is a priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the priority assessment is checking the tracheostomy site for signs of infection. This is essential to detect early signs of complications such as infection, which can lead to serious issues. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not as critical as ensuring the tracheostomy site is free from infection. Pain assessment and level of consciousness are also important but secondary to assessing for signs of infection in this scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a client undergoing the placement of a central venous catheter line. Which of the following would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea indicates a potential complication such as pneumothorax or incorrect catheter placement, requiring immediate attention. Pallor may indicate anemia but is not as urgent as dyspnea in this context. Increased temperature could be a sign of infection but is not as critical as respiratory distress. Involuntary muscle spasms are not directly related to central venous catheter placement and are of lower priority compared to respiratory issues.

4. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

5. What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a postoperative client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. This intervention helps to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis in postoperative clients. Maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis. Ambulating the client within 12 hours is beneficial for preventing complications after surgery, but it may not be as directly effective in preventing atelectasis as turning, deep breathing, and coughing. Splinting the incision is important for postoperative care, but it does not specifically address the prevention of atelectasis.

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