HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Stridor
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.
2. A client who is post-op day 1 after abdominal surgery reports pain at the incision site. The nurse notes the presence of a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
- B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
- C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the dressing and document the findings. It is important to monitor the incision site closely after surgery, especially when there is a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. Reinforcing the dressing helps maintain cleanliness and pressure on the wound. Documenting the findings is crucial for tracking the client's progress and alerting healthcare providers if necessary. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not be needed if the current dressing is intact. Removing the dressing (Choice C) can increase the risk of contamination. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not the first step for minor drainage on post-op day 1.
3. The nurse notes that a client who has undergone a thoracotomy has an increase in a large amount of dark red blood in the chest tube collection chamber. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Document the findings for this procedure as expected
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Check the tube for kinks or dependent loops
- D. Increase the suction to the chest drainage system
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An increase in a large amount of dark red blood in the chest tube collection chamber may indicate active bleeding. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to address the situation promptly and prevent further complications. Documenting the findings without taking immediate action could delay necessary interventions. Checking the tube for kinks or dependent loops is a good practice but not the priority when dealing with a potentially life-threatening situation like active bleeding. Increasing the suction without healthcare provider's orders can lead to complications and is not appropriate in this scenario.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention, shortness of breath, and peripheral edema are also common in heart failure but are not as critical as crackles in the lungs because they may indicate fluid overload or right-sided heart failure, which are important to address but not as urgently as managing pulmonary congestion.
5. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client receiving furosemide. Furosemide can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous, especially in patients with heart failure. Hypokalemia can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias, weakness, and other complications. Therefore, prompt intervention is necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Choice B (Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L) is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's safety. Choice D (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl) may suggest hyperglycemia, which is important but not as urgent as addressing hypokalemia in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide.
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