a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. A potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high in a client with CKD, and it should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not the most critical values to report before hemodialysis. While a serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is slightly elevated, it is not as urgent as a level of 6.0 mEq/L in this context. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and blood glucose of 200 mg/dl are important parameters to monitor but are not as immediately concerning before hemodialysis compared to a high potassium level.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). This level of osmolarity indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, putting the client at risk of complications like organ failure. Immediate intervention is crucial to address the dehydration and restore fluid balance. The other options, while important in the overall assessment of a client with HHS, do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration and hyperosmolarity seen with a high serum osmolarity level.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. This increases the risk of hyperkalemia, making it crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy primarily affects red blood cell production, not hemoglobin, white blood cell count, or serum calcium levels.

5. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.

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