Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula?

• A. Body temperature.
• B. Level of pain.
• C. Time of first void.
• D. Number of vessels in the cord.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula is to check the number of vessels in the cord. This assessment is crucial to identify any potential anomalies related to the TE fistula, as abnormalities in the cord vessels may indicate associated congenital anomalies that need immediate attention.

2. A 10-year-old is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a diagnosis of slipped femoral capital epiphysis (SFCE). What focus should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?

• A. Ambulation with a walking cast.
• B. Pin and incision care after surgery.
• C. Use of injections for pain control.
• D. Administration of growth hormone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of slipped femoral capital epiphysis, surgical intervention is often required. Post-surgery care is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and ensure proper healing. This care includes monitoring and managing pin and incision sites for signs of infection, promoting wound healing, and preventing postoperative complications. The focus on pin and incision care is essential for the child's recovery and overall well-being.

3. A client with no prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, 'The baby is coming!' The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the LPN/LVN to obtain?

• A. Gravidity and parity.
• B. Time and amount of last oral intake.
• C. Date of last normal menstrual period.
• D. Frequency and intensity of contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining the date of the last normal menstrual period is crucial in estimating the gestational age of the fetus. This information helps in determining the progression of labor and the management of delivery. It also assists healthcare providers in assessing the overall health of the mother and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are important in labor assessment, but in this scenario, the most crucial information needed is the date of the last normal menstrual period to estimate the gestational age.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

5. The healthcare provider is providing preconception counseling. Which supplement should the provider recommend to help prevent the occurrence of anencephaly?

• A. Folic Acid.
• B. Calcium.
• C. Iron.
• D. Vitamin D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy is crucial for reducing the risk of neural tube defects, including anencephaly. Anencephaly is a severe birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull. Folic acid plays a key role in neural tube development and can significantly lower the chances of such defects when taken prior to conception and in early pregnancy.

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