Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula?

• A. Body temperature.
• B. Level of pain.
• C. Time of first void.
• D. Number of vessels in the cord.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula is to check the number of vessels in the cord. This assessment is crucial to identify any potential anomalies related to the TE fistula, as abnormalities in the cord vessels may indicate associated congenital anomalies that need immediate attention.

2. A woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative is admitted to labor and delivery reporting abdominal cramping. She is placed on strict bedrest, and the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern are monitored with an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to determine dilatation.
• B. Determine fetal position by performing Leopold maneuvers.
• C. Assess the fetal heart rate and client's contraction pattern.
• D. Confirm Rh and Coombs status for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to assess the fetal heart rate and the client's contraction pattern. The presence of a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding in a woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative raises concerns about the well-being of the fetus. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern will provide crucial information about fetal status and help determine the appropriate course of action to ensure the safety and health of both the mother and the baby.

3. The LPN/LVN identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who was delivered vaginally. Which further assessment should the nurse perform?

• A. Elicit a positive scarf sign on the affected side.
• B. Observe for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex.
• C. Watch for swelling of fingers on the affected side.
• D. Note paralysis of the affected extremity and muscles.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crepitus in a newborn's chest following vaginal delivery may indicate a clavicle fracture. Observing for an asymmetrical Moro reflex is essential because it can indicate potential nerve damage or fracture, which may be associated with the crepitus identified during the examination.

4. A breastfeeding infant, screened for congenital hypothyroidism, is found to have low levels of thyroxine (T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best explanation for this finding?

• A. The thyroxine level is low because the TSH level is high.
• B. High thyroxine levels do not normally occur in breastfeeding infants.
• C. The thyroid gland does not produce normal levels of thyroxine for several weeks after birth.
• D. The TSH is high because of the low production of T4 by the thyroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High TSH and low T4 levels indicate that the thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones, which is a sign of congenital hypothyroidism. In this case, the high TSH is a compensatory response by the body to stimulate the thyroid to produce more T4. Choice A is incorrect because TSH does not directly affect T4 levels; rather, it is the other way around where low T4 levels lead to high TSH levels. Choice B is incorrect because high thyroxine levels are not expected in congenital hypothyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as the thyroid gland should be producing normal levels of thyroxine shortly after birth, making this explanation unlikely in the context of congenital hypothyroidism.

5. Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor serum glucose for adjustment in the infusion rate of regular insulin (Novolin R).
• B. Determine the child’s compliance schedule for subcutaneous NPH insulin (Humulin N).
• C. Demonstrate to the parents how to program an insulin pen for daily glucose regulation.
• D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the use of insulin detemir (Levemir Flex Pen).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.

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