Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

• A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
• B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
• C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
• D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

2. What action should be implemented when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client?

• A. Have the client empty her bladder.
• B. Request the client lie on her left side.
• C. Perform Leopold's maneuvers first.
• D. Give the client some cold juice to drink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client is to have the client empty her bladder. This is essential to ensure an accurate measurement because a full bladder can displace the uterus and affect the accuracy of the assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the client should lie flat on her back, not on her left side, to measure fundal height accurately. Choice C is incorrect because Leopold's maneuvers are used to determine the position of the fetus, not to measure fundal height. Choice D is incorrect as giving the client cold juice is not necessary for measuring fundal height.

3. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

4. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

• A. Apply an abdominal binder.
• B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
• C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
• D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

5. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

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