Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

• A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
• B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
• C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
• D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

2. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

3. When counseling a couple seeking information about conceiving, the LPN/LVN should know that ovulation usually occurs

• A. two weeks before menstruation.
• B. immediately after menstruation.
• C. immediately before menstruation.
• D. three weeks before menstruation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing allows for the released egg to travel down the fallopian tube where it may be fertilized by sperm, leading to conception. Understanding the timing of ovulation is crucial for couples trying to conceive to increase their chances of success.

4. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is complaining of severe pain and a feeling of pressure in her perineum. Her fundus is firm, and she has a moderate lochial flow. On inspection, the nurse finds that a perineal hematoma is beginning to form. Which assessment finding should the nurse obtain first?

• A. Urinary output and fluid intake.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Abdominal contour and bowel sounds.
• D. Heart rate and blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a postpartum client with a perineal hematoma, assessing heart rate and blood pressure is crucial as it can help determine the client's circulatory status. A perineal hematoma has the potential to cause significant blood loss leading to hypovolemia. Monitoring vital signs like heart rate and blood pressure can provide immediate information on the client's hemodynamic stability and guide further interventions if needed.

5. Upon admission to the prenatal clinic, a 23-year-old woman informs the nurse that her last menstrual period began on February 15, and that previously her periods were regular. Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this client's expected date of delivery (EDD)?

• A. November 22.
• B. November 8.
• C. December 22.
• D. October 22.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) which is February 15, resulting in February 22. Then, subtract 3 months from February 22, which gives November 22 as the estimated due date.

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