Nursing Elites

1. A male client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound and is being discharged home. The client lives at home with his wife and their adolescent daughter. What discharge instruction should the nurse include for the client?

• A. Use disposable plates and utensils.
• B. Stay in a room with the door closed.
• C. Dispose of soiled dressings in plastic bags that are securely closed.
• D. Others who are in the same room with the client should wear a mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound, it is important to prevent contact with wound secretions. Therefore, disposing of soiled dressings in securely closed plastic bags helps contain and prevent the spread of infectious material, reducing the risk of transmission to others in the household.

2. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?

• A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
• B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
• C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward underneath the axillae.
• D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the best procedure for the nurse to follow when assisting a client from the bed to a chair. This option emphasizes the correct positioning of the nurse with feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's, providing a stable base of support. By standing and pivoting the client into the chair, the nurse can maintain control and stability, especially around the client's knees, ensuring a safe transfer.

3. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client’s laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are classic manifestations of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a vital role in muscle function and cardiac conduction, so a deficiency can lead to these symptoms. Checking the client’s laboratory values for potassium levels will help confirm the presence of hypokalemia.

4. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

5. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regimen. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
• B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
• C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
• D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the effectiveness of acupuncture is important, as the client has reported its success in managing her pain previously.

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