HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
- B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
- C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
- D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.
2. Prior to discharge, the parents of a child with cystic fibrosis are demonstrating chest physiotherapy (CPT) that they will perform for their child at home. Which action requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Plan to perform CPT when the child awakens in the morning.
- B. A cupped hand is used when percussing the lung field.
- C. A bronchodilator is administered before starting CPT.
- D. The child is placed in a supine position to begin percussion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Placing the child in a supine position to begin percussion is incorrect for chest physiotherapy (CPT). This position is not effective for CPT as it may lead to improper drainage of secretions. The child should be in an appropriate sitting or slightly reclined position to ensure proper lung drainage during CPT. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for chest physiotherapy. Performing CPT when the child awakens helps in clearing secretions, using a cupped hand during percussion is a proper technique to promote secretion movement, and administering a bronchodilator before CPT can help open up the airways for better clearance.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Elevated hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.
4. During a group session on anger management, a male adolescent client is fidgety, interrupts peers, and talks about his pets at home. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client to leave and return in 10 minutes.
- B. Explore the client’s feelings about his pets and home life.
- C. Encourage his peers to help involve him in the activity.
- D. Redirect him by encouraging him to read from the handout.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best nursing action in this scenario is to redirect the client by encouraging him to read from the handout. This approach helps refocus the client's attention on the topic being discussed, which is anger management. Choice A is not appropriate as it may disrupt the group session and does not address the client's behavior. Choice B, while important in understanding the client's background, does not address the immediate disruptive behavior. Choice C involves others to manage the client's behavior instead of direct intervention by the nurse, which may not be effective in this situation.
5. A two-year-old child with heart failure is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine the pulse deficit.
- B. Administer the scheduled dose.
- C. Calculate the safe dose range.
- D. Review the serum digoxin level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario as the heart rate of 128 bpm falls within the acceptable range for a two-year-old child with heart failure. It indicates that the child may benefit from the therapeutic effects of digoxin. Monitoring the heart rate closely after administration is essential to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is within the acceptable range. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not needed since the heart rate is already within the expected parameters. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not the immediate action required in this case where the heart rate is within the normal range.