Nursing Elites

1. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

• A. Scattered macules on the face
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Smooth nail texture
• D. Presence of skin tenting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

2. A client with stage 4 lung cancer receiving in-home hospice care expresses concerns about pain while the nurse is arranging for discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the potential respiratory issues associated with morphine use.
• B. Educate the family on assessing the effectiveness of analgesics.
• C. Suggest requesting a patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) pump from the healthcare provider.
• D. Provide the client with a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing pain for a client with stage 4 lung cancer in hospice care, providing a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use is essential. This approach ensures continuous pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. By having a consistent dosing schedule, the client can maintain a more stable level of pain relief, enhancing their comfort and quality of life during this critical time.

3. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?

• A. Gallbladder disease
• B. Liver disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Skeletal muscle injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.

4. The client has received a new diagnosis of heart failure, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• C. Limit fluid intake to 1.5 liters per day.
• D. Increase intake of foods high in vitamin K.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding foods high in sodium (choice B) is essential for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid retention and decrease the strain on the heart. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, exacerbating heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium intake (choice A) can be harmful in heart failure if not monitored closely as it can affect heart rhythm. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but the specific amount should be individualized based on the client's condition. Increasing vitamin K intake (choice D) is not a primary concern in heart failure management and is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants to manage blood clotting.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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