Nursing Elites

1. What action should the nurse implement to prepare a client for the potential side effects of a newly prescribed medication?

• A. Assess the client for health alterations that may be impacted by the effects of the medication
• B. Teach the client how to administer the medication to promote the best absorption
• C. Administer a half dose and observe the client for side effects before administering a full dosage
• D. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to promote effective drug distribution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating a new medication, the nurse should conduct a thorough assessment of the client to identify any pre-existing health conditions or risk factors that could be affected by the medication. This assessment helps in establishing a baseline for monitoring potential side effects and determining the medication's appropriateness for the client. Choice B is incorrect as teaching the client how to administer the medication does not directly address preparing for potential side effects. Choice C is incorrect because administering a half dose without a proper assessment could be unsafe. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging fluid intake is not directly related to preparing for potential side effects of a medication.

2. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?

• A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
• B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
• C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
• D. Expressed feelings of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.

3. A client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse about drinking juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Orange juice has vitamin C, which deters bacterial growth.
• B. Apple juice is the most useful in acidifying the urine.
• C. Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.
• D. Grapefruit juice increases the absorption of most antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to the cells within the bladder. This property helps in maintaining urinary tract health and preventing recurrent UTIs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while vitamin C in orange juice may have some benefits, it is not specifically known for deterring bacterial growth in the urinary tract. Apple juice does not significantly impact urine acidity, and grapefruit juice does not enhance antibiotic absorption, making them less effective choices for preventing UTIs compared to cranberry juice.

4. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has had an NG tube for suctioning for the past week?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Albumin
• C. Calcium
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should carefully monitor serum sodium levels for a client with an NG tube on suction for an extended period due to potential fluid loss and the risk of developing hyponatremia, an electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia can occur as a result of continual suctioning leading to fluid loss, making it crucial to monitor sodium levels to prevent complications associated with low sodium levels. Monitoring white blood cell count, albumin, or calcium is not directly related to the impact of NG tube suction on fluid and electrolyte balance, so these values are not the priority in this scenario.

5. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.
• B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.
• C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client.
• D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.

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