HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:
- A. Vulvectomy
- B. Podophyllin application
- C. Laser therapy
- D. Electrocautery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.
2. The endometrial tissue of the cervix is arranged in folds known as:
- A. Racemose glands
- B. Rugae
- C. Arbor vitae
- D. Peritoneum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The endometrial tissue of the cervix is arranged in folds known as rugae, not Arbor vitae. Rugae are commonly found in anatomical structures like the stomach and bladder to allow expansion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Racemose glands refer to branched compound glands, Arbor vitae is the tree-like appearance of the cerebellum, and Peritoneum is the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity.
3. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:
- A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
- B. Chorionic villus sampling
- C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.
4. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?
- A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
- B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
- C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
- D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.
5. Which of the following hormones promotes endometrial growth?
- A. LH
- B. FSH
- C. Estrogen
- D. Progesterone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen is the hormone responsible for promoting endometrial growth. Estrogen helps thicken the endometrium during the menstrual cycle in preparation for implantation. LH (Choice A) and FSH (Choice B) are involved in regulating the menstrual cycle but do not directly promote endometrial growth. Progesterone (Choice D) is important for maintaining the endometrium after ovulation but is not the primary hormone responsible for promoting its growth.
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