Nursing Elites

1. To reduce staff nurse role ambiguity, which strategy should the nurse-manager implement?

• A. Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current.
• B. Conduct regular meetings to clarify roles.
• C. Increase communication between team members.
• D. Provide additional training for new nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current. By ensuring that job descriptions are clear and up-to-date, nurse-managers can reduce ambiguity and confusion about roles and responsibilities. Choice B, conducting regular meetings to clarify roles, may help but may not address the root cause of ambiguity. Choice C, increasing communication between team members, is important but may not specifically target role ambiguity. Choice D, providing additional training for new nurses, is valuable but may not directly address role ambiguity among existing staff.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, which is crucial in reducing further damage. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important to assess for changes indicative of myocardial infarction, but providing oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the physiological need for oxygen. Administering nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions but are typically implemented after oxygen therapy to address vasodilation and antiplatelet effects, respectively.

3. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
• B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
• C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
• D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.

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