a newly hired home health care nurse is planning the initial visit to an adult client who has had multiple sclerosis ms for the past 20 years and is c
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.

2. A young adult male is admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His pH is 7.25, HCO3 is 12 mEq/L, and blood glucose is 310 mg/dl. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In DKA, restoring fluid balance with sodium chloride is a priority to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances present in this condition. Choice B, preparing an emergency dose of glucagon, is incorrect because DKA is characterized by insulin deficiency, not glucagon deficiency. Choice C, determining the last time the client ate, is not the immediate priority in managing DKA. Choice D, checking urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick, may help confirm the diagnosis of DKA but is not the most critical intervention at this time.

3. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.

4. A female client is admitted with end-stage pulmonary disease, is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants 'no heroic measures' taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to ask the client to discuss 'do not resuscitate' (DNR) wishes with her healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client makes informed decisions regarding her care. While documenting the client's wishes in her medical record is essential, it is crucial that the client discusses these wishes with the healthcare provider to understand the implications and have the DNR order legally documented. Asking the client to sign an advance directive is premature without a detailed discussion with the healthcare provider. Placing a 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order in the client's chart should only be done after the client has discussed and agreed upon this decision with the healthcare provider.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis site is the most appropriate for an IM injection in a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. Administering the injection in the vastus lateralis ensures effective medication delivery due to muscle wasting in the gluteal region, preventing potential complications associated with the dorsogluteal or ventrogluteal sites, which may not be suitable in this specific client case. The deltoid site is mainly used for smaller volumes of medication and may not be ideal for this scenario.

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