HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
- B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
- C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
- D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.5
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Headache
- D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.
3. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
- B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
- C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
- D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl
- C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Positive urine ketones
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.
5. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a neurological assessment.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a neurological assessment. In a client with chronic heart failure presenting with confusion, the priority is to assess neurological status to rule out potential causes such as hypoxia or other complications. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice B) is important but assessing the neurological status takes precedence in this scenario. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining an ECG (Choice D) may be necessary but are not the initial priority when a client presents with confusion alongside shortness of breath.
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