HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
- B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
- C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
- D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is complaining of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
- C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first priority in assessing for ischemia or infarction in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction. This diagnostic test provides crucial information about the heart's electrical activity and helps in identifying any acute cardiac changes. Administering oxygen therapy and nitroglycerin can be important interventions, but obtaining an ECG takes precedence as it directly assesses the client's cardiac status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is also essential, but in this scenario, assessing for cardiac indications through an ECG is the initial step.
3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care. The UAP rubs both hands thoroughly for 2 minutes while standing at the bedside. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the UAP to remain in the client's room until the hand rub is completed.
- B. Explain that the hand rub can be completed in less than 2 minutes.
- C. Inform the UAP that handwashing helps to promote better asepsis.
- D. Determine why the UAP was not wearing gloves in the client's room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol-based hand rubs are effective with a shorter rub time, typically around 20-30 seconds. Standing at the bedside for 2 minutes to rub hands thoroughly is unnecessary and can lead to wastage of resources. It's essential for the nurse to educate the UAP on proper hand hygiene techniques to ensure efficient and effective infection control practices. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because encouraging the UAP to remain in the client's room, discussing handwashing instead of hand rubs, and questioning glove use are not the most appropriate actions in this scenario.
4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, especially during hemodialysis. Serum calcium, serum creatinine, and white blood cell count, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks like hyperkalemia.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.
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