Nursing Elites

1. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
• B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
• C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
• D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.

2. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse he will drink plenty of dairy products to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea.
• B. Suggest that the client also plans to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort.
• C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream.
• D. Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate a duodenal ulcer. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. Choice A is incorrect because switching to decaffeinated coffee and tea does not address the issue of avoiding milk and cream products. Choice B is incorrect because while eating frequent small meals can help with discomfort, it does not address the specific issue of avoiding milk and cream. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need to avoid milk and cream products.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

4. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

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