HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. To avoid nerve injury, what location should the nurse select to administer a 3 mL IM injection?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Outer upper quadrant of the buttock
- C. Two inches below the acromion process
- D. Vastus lateralis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred location for administering large volume IM injections to avoid nerve injury. This site is situated away from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications associated with injecting into other areas. The ventrogluteal site allows for deep muscle penetration and is recommended for injections over 2 mL in volume to ensure proper dispersion and absorption of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the outer upper quadrant of the buttock is not the recommended site for large volume injections, two inches below the acromion process is a location for a deltoid injection, and the vastus lateralis is typically used for smaller volume injections.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
- B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
- C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.
3. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?
- A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
- B. The client can identify an object by touch.
- C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
- D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lungs.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Hepatomegaly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.
5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
- B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
- C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
- D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.
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