Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

2. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What type of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer to this client?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. NPH insulin
• C. Lispro insulin
• D. Glargine insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL, which indicates severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should prepare to administer regular insulin (A). Regular insulin has a rapid onset of action and is the preferred choice for immediate correction of high blood glucose levels. NPH insulin (B), lispro insulin (C), and glargine insulin (D) are not suitable for the rapid correction of severe hyperglycemia.

4. When taking a client's blood pressure, the healthcare professional is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. What is the best action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
• B. Reinflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
• C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
• D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when unable to distinguish the point of the first sound during blood pressure measurement is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. This allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring a more accurate reading the second time. It is important to ensure that the cuff is fully deflated and the appropriate wait time is given to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement.

5. When caring for a client with a chest tube, which intervention is most important?

• A. Keep the drainage system at chest level.
• B. Ensure that the chest tube is clamped at all times.
• C. Strip the chest tube every shift.
• D. Ensure that the chest tube is connected to a water-seal drainage system.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial intervention when caring for a client with a chest tube is to ensure that the chest tube is connected to a water-seal drainage system (D). This system helps maintain proper lung expansion and prevents complications. Keeping the drainage system at chest level (A) is important to facilitate drainage, but not as critical as ensuring the connection to the drainage system. Clamping the chest tube (B) is unnecessary and can lead to serious issues. Stripping the chest tube (C) is an outdated practice and can cause harm rather than benefit.

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