Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

2. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

3. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

4. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?

• A. 14
• B. 16
• C. 17
• D. 28

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.

5. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time.
• B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.
• D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small-bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes. The nurse should assess tube placement in this way before taking any other action to ensure the tube is still in the correct position and prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because further assessment is needed due to the risk of tube displacement. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the feeding and involving the family is premature without confirming tube placement. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air and auscultating for gurgling is not the recommended method to confirm tube placement.

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