Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a spinal cord injury experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• B. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Administer an antihypertensive medication.
• D. Assess the client's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with autonomic dysreflexia, the most critical action is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees (A). This positioning helps reduce blood pressure, which is essential in managing autonomic dysreflexia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (B) is important for overall assessment but not the priority in this situation. Administering an antihypertensive medication (C) without addressing the positioning issue first can lead to further complications. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (D) is not directly related to autonomic dysreflexia and is not the initial priority in this scenario.

2. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

3. A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

• A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the healthcare professional could lose the case.
• B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the healthcare professional's license is likely to be revoked.
• C. There will be no judgment against the healthcare professional, whose actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) can be proved.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.

4. When a client has suffered severe burns all over his body, the most effective method of monitoring the cardiovascular system is:

• A. Cuff blood pressure.
• B. Arterial pressure.
• C. Pulmonary artery pressure.
• D. Central venous pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring is the most effective method to assess fluid status and the cardiovascular system in a client with severe burns. Severe burns can lead to significant fluid shifts and hemodynamic changes, making central venous pressure monitoring crucial for guiding fluid resuscitation and managing cardiovascular stability in these patients.

5. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

• A. Superficial veins are more easily found in the feet and ankles.
• B. A decreased flow rate could lead to thrombosis formation.
• C. It is more challenging to move a cannulated extremity when using the leg or foot.
• D. Veins in the feet and ankles are located deep, making the procedure more painful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.

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