Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
• B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
• C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.

2. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

3. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client with pneumonia who has a fever of 101.5°F
• B. Client who underwent knee surgery and needs dressing change
• C. Client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus experiencing abdominal rigidity
• D. Client with diabetes requesting insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Abdominal rigidity in a client with a bowel obstruction could indicate peritonitis, a serious complication requiring immediate attention. Volvulus, a twisting of the intestine, can lead to bowel ischemia and necrosis. Clients with pneumonia (choice A) may need assessment and treatment for infection, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as a bowel obstruction. A client who underwent knee surgery (choice B) needing a dressing change can typically wait for assessment compared to a potential surgical emergency. Similarly, a client with diabetes requesting insulin (choice D) may require attention to maintain blood glucose levels, but it is not as urgent as a suspected bowel obstruction with possible peritonitis.

4. A mother reports that she has been applying triple antibiotic ointment for her son's athlete's foot for two days with no improvement. What should the nurse instruct?

• A. Continue using the ointment and keep the area clean.
• B. Stop using the ointment and encourage the feet to be dried completely.
• C. Apply a different antifungal medication instead.
• D. Reapply the ointment twice a day for a longer period.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antibiotic ointment is ineffective against athlete's foot, which is a fungal infection. The nurse should instruct the mother to stop using the ointment and ensure the feet are dried properly, as moisture exacerbates fungal infections. Applying a different antifungal medication is a valid option, but addressing the moisture issue by drying the feet completely is the immediate priority. Continuing to use the antibiotic ointment or reapplying it for a longer period will not treat the fungal infection effectively.

5. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
• C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

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