HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
- B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
- C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an infected foot ulcer. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain a wound culture for testing.
- B. Administer prescribed IV antibiotics.
- C. Elevate the affected foot to reduce swelling.
- D. Consult the wound care nurse for assessment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering prescribed IV antibiotics is the most crucial intervention in managing an infected foot ulcer in a client with diabetes mellitus. Antibiotics help combat the infection and prevent its spread systemically, which is vital in diabetic clients to prevent serious complications like sepsis. While obtaining a wound culture (Choice A) may provide valuable information for targeted antibiotic therapy, administering antibiotics promptly takes precedence to prevent the infection from worsening. Elevating the affected foot (Choice C) can help reduce swelling but is not as urgent as administering antibiotics. Consulting the wound care nurse (Choice D) may be beneficial for long-term wound management but does not address the immediate need to control the infection.
3. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
- B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
- C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
- D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.
4. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
- B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
- C. Administer platelet transfusion.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.
5. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
- B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
- C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
- D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.
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