Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's pain?

• A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• B. Place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent
• C. Administer oral analgesics as prescribed
• D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to help manage the client's pain in acute pancreatitis is to place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent. This position can alleviate abdominal pain by reducing pressure on the pancreas and improving comfort. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for other conditions but may not directly help alleviate abdominal pain in pancreatitis. Administering oral analgesics (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the initial priority for managing pain in acute pancreatitis. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is important for hydration but is not directly related to pain management in this context.

2. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Cancel the surgery
• B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
• D. Proceed with routine preparations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.

3. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
• B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

4. A client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer. Which of the following should take priority in planning care?

• A. Esophagitis
• B. Leukopenia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Skin irritation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leukopenia. Leukopenia, or a low white blood cell count, is a critical concern in clients undergoing radiation therapy due to the increased risk of infection. While esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, leukopenia poses a higher risk as it compromises the body's ability to fight infections effectively.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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