Nursing Elites

1. The wife of an older adult man who has had diabetes mellitus for the past 10 years reports to the home health nurse that her husband fell yesterday while taking his daily walk in the neighborhood. He has a bruised hand and a small abrasion on his left knee. The nurse assesses that his neurologic vital signs are stable. To reduce the risk for future falls, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. current blood sugar level
• B. degree of paresthesia in feet
• C. wound healing of knee abrasion
• D. A1c glycosylated hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for paresthesia (numbness or tingling) in the feet is crucial in this scenario as it can help determine if the client has a loss of sensation, which increases the risk of falls. Paresthesia is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to decreased sensation and proprioception in the feet, contributing to balance issues and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for paresthesia allows the nurse to assess the extent of sensory impairment and implement appropriate interventions to prevent future falls. While monitoring blood sugar levels (choice A) and A1c levels (choice D) are important in managing diabetes, in this case, assessing paresthesia takes precedence due to its direct impact on fall risk. Similarly, while monitoring the wound healing of the knee abrasion (choice C) is important for overall wound care, it is not directly related to reducing the risk of future falls in this situation.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• B. I will report any signs of infection to my healthcare provider.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.

3. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?

• A. Drinks adequate fluids.
• B. Void without difficulty.
• C. Feels less thirsty.
• D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.

4. A nurse has started a group for senior citizens in a church setting. The group decides that their first project will be to begin a program for home-bound members. Which program outcome is the best measure of the project's effectiveness?

• A. number of home-bound seniors who are visited
• B. number of church members who are over 65
• C. average annual income for the homebound members
• D. calls received showing interest in the program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The number of home-bound seniors visited is the best measure of the project's effectiveness as it directly reflects the reach and impact of the program. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the effectiveness of the program for home-bound seniors. Choice C is irrelevant as the average annual income of home-bound members is not a direct measure of the program's effectiveness. Choice D, calls showing interest, is not as direct a measure as the actual visits to the home-bound seniors.

5. A community health nurse is developing a program to reduce the incidence of teen pregnancy. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Distribute free condoms at local high schools
• B. Offer comprehensive sex education classes
• C. Promote abstinence-only education
• D. Provide access to reproductive health services

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Comprehensive sex education has been shown to be more effective in reducing teen pregnancy rates compared to abstinence-only education. Providing comprehensive sex education equips teens with knowledge about safe sex practices, contraception methods, and healthy relationships, which empowers them to make informed decisions. Distributing free condoms and providing access to reproductive health services are important components, but without proper education, teens may not understand how to use these resources effectively. Promoting abstinence-only education limits information and may not address the reality of teen sexual behavior, potentially leading to higher pregnancy rates.

Similar Questions