Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods that cause gas.
• B. I will change my colostomy bag every week.
• C. I will use a skin barrier to protect the skin around the stoma.
• D. I will empty my colostomy bag when it is one-third full.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Changing the colostomy bag every week is not sufficient; it should be changed more frequently to prevent leakage and skin irritation. Option A is correct as avoiding foods that cause gas can help manage colostomy-related symptoms. Option C is correct as using a skin barrier helps protect the skin around the stoma. Option D is correct as emptying the colostomy bag when it is one-third full helps prevent leakage and discomfort.

4. A public health nurse is planning a vaccination clinic for a rural community. Which vaccine should the nurse prioritize for adults in this area?

• A. hepatitis A
• B. influenza
• C. varicella
• D. measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: influenza.' Influenza vaccination is crucial for adults, particularly in rural areas where access to healthcare may be limited. Influenza can cause serious illness and complications, and vaccination helps protect individuals and prevent the spread of the virus. While vaccines for hepatitis A, varicella, and measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) are important, prioritizing influenza vaccination in this scenario is essential due to its seasonal prevalence and potential impact on public health. Hepatitis A and varicella vaccines are also important but may not be as immediately critical for this population. MMR vaccine is typically administered in childhood, so it is not the priority for adults in this scenario.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

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