Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Milk the chest tube to ensure patency.
• C. Keep the drainage system at the level of the chest.
• D. Ensure that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked is essential to maintain proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space, causing potential harm to the client. Milking the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the delicate tubing. Keeping the drainage system at the level of the chest ensures proper drainage by gravity, preventing backflow of fluids, but ensuring the tube is not clamped or kinked takes precedence in this scenario.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

3. A client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has an elevated blood glucose level. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Check the TPN infusion rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client receiving TPN with an elevated blood glucose level is to check the TPN infusion rate. Elevated blood glucose levels in clients receiving TPN can be due to incorrect infusion rates leading to increased glucose delivery. By checking the TPN infusion rate, the nurse can verify if the rate is appropriate and make necessary adjustments. Stopping the TPN infusion abruptly could lead to complications from sudden nutrient deprivation. Administering insulin as prescribed may be necessary but should come after ensuring the correct TPN infusion rate. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but addressing the immediate need to check the infusion rate takes priority to manage hyperglycemia effectively.

4. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

• A. evaluate the teachers' ability to identify pediculosis capitis 2 months after initiation of the program
• B. conduct an initial examination of each child in the school to obtain baseline data
• C. survey parents 3 weeks after pamphlets are sent home to assess their understanding of the condition
• D. measure the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

5. The healthcare professional is planning a health fair to promote cancer awareness and prevention. Which activity is most likely to increase participation?

• A. offering free cancer screenings
• B. distributing pamphlets on cancer prevention
• C. hosting a guest speaker who is a cancer survivor
• D. providing informational booths on different types of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings is the most likely activity to increase participation in the health fair. Providing direct services such as screenings not only attracts participants but also promotes early detection, which is crucial in cancer prevention. Distributing pamphlets, hosting a guest speaker, or providing informational booths are informative but may not have the same impact in driving participation as the opportunity for free screenings.

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