HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?
- A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
- B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
- C. Administer the medications as prescribed
- D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.
2. A client is experiencing shortness of breath and wheezing. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer bronchodilator medication
- B. Check the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention to open the airways and relieve wheezing and shortness of breath. Bronchodilators work quickly to dilate the airways, making it easier for the client to breathe. Checking oxygen saturation is important but can be done after initiating bronchodilator therapy. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing and elevating the head of the bed can help improve breathing patterns but should follow the administration of the bronchodilator.
3. A client who has been receiving chemotherapy for cancer has a platelet count of 20,000/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Apply ice packs to bruised areas.
- B. Encourage frequent oral hygiene.
- C. Avoid invasive procedures.
- D. Place the client in a private room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a platelet count of 20,000/mm3 due to chemotherapy is to avoid invasive procedures. Chemotherapy can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse helps reduce the risk of bleeding complications. Applying ice packs to bruised areas (Choice A) may further increase the risk of bleeding due to the pressure and potential trauma to the skin. Encouraging frequent oral hygiene (Choice B) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with a low platelet count. Placing the client in a private room (Choice D) is not directly related to managing the platelet count and risk of bleeding; it is more about privacy and infection control, which are important but not the priority in this scenario.
4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with hypertension. Which of these statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will limit my intake of high-sodium foods.
- B. I will take my medications as prescribed by my healthcare provider.
- C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly and keep a record to show my healthcare provider.
- D. I will limit my intake of high-fat foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because limiting high-sodium foods is essential in managing hypertension and preventing complications. High sodium intake can lead to increased blood pressure levels. Choice B is important too, but solely relying on medications without lifestyle modifications may not be as effective in controlling hypertension. Choice C is also crucial for monitoring progress, but without dietary changes, blood pressure control may be challenging. Choice D, limiting high-fat foods, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly related to managing hypertension as limiting high-sodium foods.
5. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?
- A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
- B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
- C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
- D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.