Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Use of accessory muscles
• B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of accessory muscles. This finding indicates increased work of breathing in a client with COPD and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the use of accessory muscles suggests that the client is in distress and struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the body's ability to oxygenate adequately is already compromised, so a saturation of 85% is particularly concerning. A barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles are common findings in COPD due to chronic air trapping and increased work of breathing. While a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is elevated, a low oxygen saturation is a more critical finding that necessitates prompt attention.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum sodium
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is undergoing erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, which may lead to an increase in potassium levels, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels helps in early detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hemoglobin, serum sodium, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor in various clinical conditions, they are not specifically associated with erythropoietin therapy in chronic kidney disease.

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