HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?
- A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
- B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
- C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
- D. Encourage the client to exercise.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this scenario. This intervention helps address psychomotor retardation and enhances motivation and functioning. By structuring the client's day, it can provide a sense of purpose, routine, and accomplishment. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may be helpful but does not directly address the client's overall functioning. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may provide temporary relief but may not address the core symptoms of major depressive disorder. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, can be beneficial, but in this case, addressing the lack of structure and motivation through a daily plan is more appropriate.
2. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Akathisia
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.
3. During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?
- A. Assist the client in developing alternative coping skills.
- B. Remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach.
- C. Ask the client why she is so anxious.
- D. Administer a PRN sedative to help relieve her anxiety.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.
4. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?
- A. If domestic abuse is happening, I need to ask these questions.
- B. State law requires that all clients are screened for domestic violence.
- C. It is essential for us to know if you are experiencing any domestic abuse.
- D. All clients are screened for domestic abuse because it is common in our society.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse helps normalize the process and reduces the stigma, encouraging honest responses. Choice A is not the best option as it may come off as accusatory and can deter the client from being open. Choice B, mentioning state law, may create fear or pressure, affecting the client's response. Choice C focuses on the healthcare provider's needs rather than emphasizing the client's well-being, which may not facilitate open communication.
5. A client who is admitted with a closed head injury after a fall has a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 0.28 (28%) and is difficult to arouse. Which intervention during the first 6 hours following admission should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Place in a side-lying position with head of bed elevated.
- B. Administer disulfiram (Antabuse) immediately
- C. Give lorazepam (Ativan) PRN for signs of withdrawal.
- D. Provide thiamine and folate supplements as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Maintain the patient's airway is the priority for a client who is intoxicated and obtunded.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access