HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?
- A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
- B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
- C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
- D. Encourage the client to exercise.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this scenario. This intervention helps address psychomotor retardation and enhances motivation and functioning. By structuring the client's day, it can provide a sense of purpose, routine, and accomplishment. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may be helpful but does not directly address the client's overall functioning. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may provide temporary relief but may not address the core symptoms of major depressive disorder. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, can be beneficial, but in this case, addressing the lack of structure and motivation through a daily plan is more appropriate.
2. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client's response to a new antianxiety medication. Which client statement indicates a positive response to the medication?
- A. “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.”
- B. “I am sleeping less and feel more energetic.”
- C. “I have not noticed any changes in my anxiety levels.”
- D. “I have more difficulty concentrating than before.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.” A positive response to antianxiety medication is characterized by reduced anxiety and increased relaxation. Choice B, which mentions sleeping less and feeling more energetic, suggests potential side effects rather than a positive response to the medication. Choice C indicates no change in anxiety levels, which is not indicative of a positive response. Choice D, mentioning difficulty concentrating, is also a sign of a negative response to antianxiety medication as it may suggest cognitive impairment.
3. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
- C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.
4. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?
- A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
- B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
- C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
- D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.
5. A male client approaches the RN with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The RN recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial.
- B. Projection.
- C. Rationalization.
- D. Splitting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others, as seen in the client’s accusations of his roommate’s behavior. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own anger and potential for violence onto his roommate. Choice A, Denial, involves refusing to acknowledge some aspect of reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasons are given to justify behaviors that are actually based on unacceptable motives, which is not demonstrated by the client's behavior. Choice D, Splitting, is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as all good or all bad, not applicable in this case as the client is not portraying extreme views of his roommate.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access