Nursing Elites

1. The practical nurse is caring for a child who has just returned from surgery for an appendectomy. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage early ambulation.
• B. Apply warm compresses to the incision site.
• C. Monitor for signs of infection at the surgical site.
• D. Provide a high-fiber diet immediately post-op.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection at the surgical site is crucial after an appendectomy as it helps in early detection and treatment of any potential complications. This intervention is essential for ensuring the child's proper healing and recovery post-surgery. Encouraging early ambulation is generally beneficial post-operatively but may not be the priority immediately after an appendectomy. Applying warm compresses to the incision site may not be indicated as it can increase the risk of infection. Providing a high-fiber diet immediately post-op is not recommended as the digestive system needs time to recover from surgery.

2. What action should the nurse implement after the infusion is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia receiving chemotherapy via an implanted medication port at the outpatient oncology clinic?

• A. Administer Zofran
• B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
• C. Flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution
• D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After completing the chemotherapy infusion via the implanted medication port, the nurse should flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This action helps prevent clot formation in the port, ensuring its patency for future use and reducing the risk of complications associated with catheter occlusion. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is used for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, not for post-infusion care. Obtaining blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets (Choice B) is important for monitoring the patient's blood count but is not the immediate post-infusion priority. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion.

3. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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