Nursing Elites

1. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

2. The mother of a 9-month-old, diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday, calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?

• A. The child will no longer be contagious, so no need to take any further precautions.
• B. Ensure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
• C. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
• D. Do not expose other children to RSV. It is highly contagious even without direct contact.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. RSV is highly contagious, even without direct contact. It is important to prevent the spread of the virus to other children, so the infected child should not attend the birthday party to avoid exposing other children to RSV. This is crucial to protect the health of other children who may be more vulnerable to the virus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as RSV remains contagious for a period of time, and precautions should be taken to prevent its spread. Choice B is incorrect because the age limit specified is not a reliable measure to prevent transmission. Choice C is incorrect as wearing a mask may not be sufficient to prevent the spread of RSV in a social setting like a birthday party.

3. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

4. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

5. A school-age child with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with confusion and rapid breathing. The practical nurse (PN) suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which initial intervention should the PN anticipate?

• A. Administer subcutaneous insulin.
• B. Give oral glucose tablets.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Administer oxygen therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intravenous fluids are typically the initial intervention in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to treat dehydration and stabilize the patient's condition. The fluid replacement helps correct electrolyte imbalances and improve perfusion, which are crucial in managing DKA. Insulin therapy follows after fluid resuscitation to address the underlying cause of DKA, which is the lack of insulin leading to increased ketone production. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice A) would be premature without first addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Giving oral glucose tablets (Choice B) is contraindicated in DKA as the patient already has high blood glucose levels. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but addressing dehydration with intravenous fluids is the priority intervention in DKA.

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