HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?
- A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
- B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
- C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
- D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
3. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?
- A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- D. Multivitamins
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.
4. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
- B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
- C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
- D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
5. Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a client at high risk for the development of postoperative thrombus formation?
- A. Instruct the client in the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
- C. Use aseptic technique when changing the dressing.
- D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Thrombus formation is a risk for clients who are immobile postoperatively. Encouraging frequent ambulation helps to prevent stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. This intervention promotes circulation and prevents blood clot formation, making it the most important intervention in this situation.