Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl
• C. Serum pH of 7.30
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), a serum pH of 7.30 is the most concerning value as it indicates acidosis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not the most concerning in this scenario. A low serum potassium level (Choice A) may be expected due to cellular shift in hyperglycemia, a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dl (Choice B) is not as concerning compared to the extremely high initial glucose level, and a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (Choice D) is within the normal range and not the immediate priority.

2. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of facial edema. He reports that he has been voiding small amounts of dark, cloudy, tea-colored urine. The parents state that their son had a sore throat 2 weeks earlier, but it has resolved. After assessing the child's vital signs and weight, what intervention should the nurse implement next?

• A. Perform an otoscopic examination
• B. Measure the child's abdominal girth
• C. Collect a urine specimen for routine urinalysis
• D. Obtain a blood specimen for serum electrolytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis is the next appropriate intervention. The symptoms described, including facial edema and tea-colored urine, are indicative of glomerulonephritis, a condition affecting the kidneys. A urine specimen can help assess renal function and the presence of blood and protein in the urine, which are common in glomerulonephritis. Performing an otoscopic examination (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Measuring the child's abdominal girth (Choice B) is not necessary at this point as it does not directly address the urinary symptoms. Obtaining a blood specimen for serum electrolytes (Choice D) may provide information about electrolyte imbalances but is not the most appropriate initial step in this case.

3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

• A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
• B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
• C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
• D. Initiate fall precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer thiamine as prescribed. Administering thiamine is crucial in clients with a history of alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) and initiating fall precautions (choice D) are important interventions, but administering thiamine takes precedence due to the risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crackles in the lungs
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.

5. While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

• A. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly
• B. Frequent monitoring helps ensure the medication is effective
• C. It is standard protocol for all hospitalized children
• D. We need to monitor for any potential kidney damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly.' Acute glomerulonephritis can lead to significant hypertension, making it crucial to monitor blood pressure frequently to promptly identify any elevation. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring can help assess medication effectiveness, the primary reason for frequent blood pressure checks in this case is to detect elevated blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as not all hospitalized children require such frequent blood pressure monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure is to detect hypertension, rather than solely focusing on potential kidney damage.

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