Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl
• C. Serum pH of 7.30
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), a serum pH of 7.30 is the most concerning value as it indicates acidosis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not the most concerning in this scenario. A low serum potassium level (Choice A) may be expected due to cellular shift in hyperglycemia, a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dl (Choice B) is not as concerning compared to the extremely high initial glucose level, and a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (Choice D) is within the normal range and not the immediate priority.

2. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?

• A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
• B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
• C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
• D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.

3. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine. Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of the OTC medication?

• A. Nausea and indigestion.
• B. Hypersalivation.
• C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
• D. Increased appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. This medication can have anticholinergic effects, leading to these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.

4. A nurse plans to call the healthcare provider to report an 0600 serum potassium level of 2 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI), but the charge nurse tells the nurse that the healthcare provider does not like to receive early morning calls and will make rounds later in the morning. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider immediately to report the laboratory value regardless of the advice.
• B. Document the finding and report it when the healthcare provider makes rounds.
• C. Notify the charge nurse that you are following the chain of command.
• D. Administer a potassium supplement and notify the provider later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nurse should contact the healthcare provider immediately to report a critically low potassium level of 2 mEq/L. Potassium levels below the normal range can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent harm to the patient. Option B is incorrect as delaying reporting such a critical value can jeopardize patient safety. Option C is not the priority in this situation; the focus should be on patient care. Option D is dangerous and inappropriate as administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful, especially with a critically low level.

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

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