Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting an adolescent client in the selection of complementary protein sources on the lunch menu. The client is a vegetarian who eats milk products but does not like beans. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend?

• A. Peanut butter and jelly with enriched bread
• B. Baked potato with sour cream
• C. Bagel with cream cheese
• D. Fruit salad and carrot sticks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peanut butter and enriched bread provide complementary proteins, which are important for a vegetarian diet. Peanut butter is a good source of protein and when paired with enriched bread, it forms a complete protein source. Choice B, baked potato with sour cream, lacks complete protein. Choice C, bagel with cream cheese, also does not provide a complete protein source. Choice D, fruit salad and carrot sticks, do not contain sufficient protein to serve as a main protein source for a vegetarian diet.

2. The nurse is monitoring a client who has just had a thyroidectomy. The client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. Which of these findings should the nurse assess first?

• A. Calcium level
• B. Chvostek's sign
• C. Trousseau's sign
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Chvostek's sign. This is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after a thyroidectomy due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications like tetany and laryngospasm, necessitating immediate attention. Assessing Chvostek's sign helps in early identification and management of hypocalcemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While assessing the calcium level is important for diagnosing hypocalcemia, the immediate concern is to identify clinical signs like Chvostek's sign, which indicate acute hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is also related to hypocalcemia but is not the most critical sign to assess first. Serum potassium level, although important for overall electrolyte balance, is not directly related to the client's current symptoms of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth.

3. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

4. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate?

• A. Pulverize all medications into a powdery condition
• B. Squeeze the tube before using it to break up stagnant liquids
• C. Cleanse the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide
• D. Flush adequately with water before and after using the tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, flushing the tube adequately with water before and after use is essential. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures the proper administration of feedings and medications. Choice A is incorrect because pulverizing all medications into a powdery condition is not necessary for PEG tube administration. Choice B is incorrect as squeezing the tube to break up stagnant liquids may damage the tube. Choice C is incorrect because cleansing the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide can be too harsh and lead to skin irritation.

5. Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?

• A. Eat a light diet for the rest of the day
• B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and test are tiring.
• C. During waking hours, drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every hour for the next 2 days
• D. Measure urine output for the next day and immediately notify the healthcare provider if it decreases.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.

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