HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A 24-year-old female client who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain relief. Which information should the nurse provide the client about taking this medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals
- B. Take the medication with an antacid
- C. Report any changes in stool color to your healthcare provider
- D. Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any changes in stool color to the healthcare provider. This is important because changes in stool color can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen. Choice A is incorrect because while taking ibuprofen with meals can help reduce stomach upset, it is not the most crucial information to provide. Choice B is incorrect as taking ibuprofen with an antacid is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is also incorrect because while ibuprofen and aspirin are both NSAIDs, they can be taken together under certain circumstances, but it's important to be cautious and follow healthcare provider recommendations.
2. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?
- A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
- B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
- C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
- D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.
3. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels
- B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
- C. Implement seizure precautions
- D. Encourage a low-protein diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.
4. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
- D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.
5. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- B. Presence of a cough
- C. Edema in the lower extremities
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - Shortness of breath.' In a client with congestive heart failure experiencing fluid volume overload, shortness of breath is a critical finding that indicates possible pulmonary congestion and worsening heart failure. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common findings in clients with CHF but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Weight gain may indicate fluid retention, cough can be due to pulmonary congestion, and edema in lower extremities is a common manifestation of CHF, but none of these findings are as concerning as shortness of breath in this scenario.
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