Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Decrease the oxygen flow rate
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to decrease the oxygen flow rate. Clients with COPD are sensitive to high levels of oxygen and can develop oxygen toxicity, leading to symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Decreasing the oxygen flow rate helps prevent this complication. Increasing the oxygen flow rate would worsen the client's condition. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. While monitoring the client's oxygen saturation level is important, taking action to address the oxygen toxicity by decreasing the flow rate is the priority in this situation.

3. A female client on the mental health unit tells the nurse that her roommate is sitting on the bathroom floor with superficial cuts on her wrists. The nurse cleans and assesses the client's wrists and asks what happened. She doesn't respond. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Find supplies to put a dressing on the client's wrists
• B. Take the client to a room for supervision by staff
• C. Call the healthcare provider to report the client's behavior
• D. Go find a staff member to stay in the room with the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should prioritize the safety of the client. Taking the client to a room for supervision by staff is crucial to ensure immediate safety and further assessment of the client's condition. While cleaning and assessing the client's wrists are important, ensuring ongoing safety and monitoring by staff is the priority. Calling the healthcare provider at this moment may cause delays in providing immediate assistance. Finding supplies to put a dressing on the client's wrists can wait until the client is in a safe environment. Therefore, option B is the best course of action to address the client's safety needs promptly.

4. Is it necessary to continue to strain the urine of a client with kidney stones since several stones were obtained the previous day?

• A. UAPs should follow the prescribed care without questioning it
• B. Yes, it is important to continue straining all the client's urine
• C. Measuring intake and output is equally important as straining the urine
• D. Ensuring that the client is free from pain should be the top priority

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yes, it is important to continue straining all urine to catch any remaining stones. Straining the urine helps in identifying any new stones that may have formed, allowing for appropriate management. While measuring intake and output is important, straining the urine is specifically necessary in this case to monitor the presence of kidney stones. Ensuring the client is free from pain is essential, but in this situation, preventing further complications related to kidney stones is a higher priority.

5. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.

Similar Questions