the nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest which action is most important for the nu
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation level is crucial when a nurse identifies a barrel chest. A barrel chest is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which can lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring the oxygen saturation level will provide immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques, determining lung disease history, and obtaining arterial blood gas samples are important interventions but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence in this scenario due to its direct impact on the client's respiratory function.

2. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

5. The husband and adult children of a woman who abuses alcohol ask the nurse what approach to use when her drinking behavior disrupts family plans. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best approach for the nurse to suggest is to make the woman responsible for the consequences of her drinking behaviors. By holding her accountable, she is more likely to recognize the impact of her actions and potentially initiate change. Destroying hidden alcohol supplies (Choice A) might lead to conflict and further secretive behavior. Simply communicating the disruptions caused by her drinking (Choice B) may not effectively address the issue. Including her in family activities regardless of her drinking status (Choice D) could enable the behavior and not address the underlying problem.

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