the nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest which action is most important for the nu
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation level is crucial when a nurse identifies a barrel chest. A barrel chest is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which can lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring the oxygen saturation level will provide immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques, determining lung disease history, and obtaining arterial blood gas samples are important interventions but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence in this scenario due to its direct impact on the client's respiratory function.

2. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

3. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been 'trying to start a new business' and is 'too busy to eat.' He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the most critical nursing diagnosis to address in this scenario. The patient's significant weight loss and neglect of basic needs, such as eating and personal hygiene, indicate a severe imbalance in nutrition. Addressing this issue is crucial to prevent further health deterioration. Self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are important but secondary concerns compared to the immediate risk posed by imbalanced nutrition. While self-care deficit and disturbed sleep pattern are valid concerns, the patient's weight loss and neglect of basic needs take precedence. Disturbed thought processes are also significant but addressing the imbalanced nutrition is more urgent in this context.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to decrease the oxygen flow rate. Clients with COPD are sensitive to high levels of oxygen and can develop oxygen toxicity, leading to symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Decreasing the oxygen flow rate helps prevent this complication. Increasing the oxygen flow rate would worsen the client's condition. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. While monitoring the client's oxygen saturation level is important, taking action to address the oxygen toxicity by decreasing the flow rate is the priority in this situation.

5. A 24-year-old female client who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain relief. Which information should the nurse provide the client about taking this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any changes in stool color to the healthcare provider. This is important because changes in stool color can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen. Choice A is incorrect because while taking ibuprofen with meals can help reduce stomach upset, it is not the most crucial information to provide. Choice B is incorrect as taking ibuprofen with an antacid is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is also incorrect because while ibuprofen and aspirin are both NSAIDs, they can be taken together under certain circumstances, but it's important to be cautious and follow healthcare provider recommendations.

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