Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?

• A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
• B. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques
• C. Determine the client's history of lung disease
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation level is crucial when a nurse identifies a barrel chest. A barrel chest is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which can lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring the oxygen saturation level will provide immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques, determining lung disease history, and obtaining arterial blood gas samples are important interventions but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence in this scenario due to its direct impact on the client's respiratory function.

2. Is it necessary to continue to strain the urine of a client with kidney stones since several stones were obtained the previous day?

• A. UAPs should follow the prescribed care without questioning it
• B. Yes, it is important to continue straining all the client's urine
• C. Measuring intake and output is equally important as straining the urine
• D. Ensuring that the client is free from pain should be the top priority

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yes, it is important to continue straining all urine to catch any remaining stones. Straining the urine helps in identifying any new stones that may have formed, allowing for appropriate management. While measuring intake and output is important, straining the urine is specifically necessary in this case to monitor the presence of kidney stones. Ensuring the client is free from pain is essential, but in this situation, preventing further complications related to kidney stones is a higher priority.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, 'I've been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
• B. I'll let you see the doctor next because you've waited so long.
• C. I'm doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
• D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response acknowledges the client's emotions, shows empathy, and validates their feelings of frustration. Option A justifies the situation but does not address the client's emotional state. Option B is unfair to other patients and may not be based on urgency. Option C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than addressing the client's emotions, making it less effective than option D.

5. When preparing an educational program for adolescents about the risks of multiple sexual partners, which information is most important to include?

• A. Condoms provide reliable protection against sexually transmitted infections.
• B. Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections.
• C. The use of oral contraceptives can reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections.
• D. Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk of developing cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having multiple sexual partners significantly increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This information is crucial for adolescents to understand the potential consequences of engaging in risky sexual behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because while condoms are important for protection, they are not 100% effective. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not protect against STIs. Choice D is incorrect as the immediate concern for adolescents in this context is the risk of STIs rather than cancer.

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