HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is receiving lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. To evaluate the therapeutic response, which assessment should the nurse obtain?
- A. Percussion of the abdomen.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Serum electrolytes.
- D. Level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, which can affect brain function. Therefore, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic response. Changes in consciousness can indicate the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are important assessments in various conditions, they are not specifically related to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.
2. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Bibasilar crackles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Presence of a new murmur
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid overload, a common issue in heart failure patients. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and potential complications. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg are within normal ranges for many individuals and do not typically require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may be important to monitor but is not the priority when crackles in the lungs suggest fluid overload.
4. Upon admission, a female client with breast cancer, liver, and spine metastases presents with constant, severe pain despite the continuous use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) at home for pain management. What information is most crucial for the nurse to gather during the admission assessment?
- A. Sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain.
- B. Identification of trigger points through palpation and manual pressure on painful areas.
- C. Current schedule and total dosages of medications used for breakthrough pain.
- D. Assessment of sympathetic responses indicative of acute pain onset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the admission assessment of a client with severe pain due to breast cancer metastasis to the liver and spine is the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain. Understanding these details is essential to tailor appropriate pain management therapy effectively. By assessing the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of pain, the nurse can better determine the underlying cause and choose the most suitable interventions to address the client's pain and improve their quality of life. Trigger points, medication dosages, and sympathetic responses are also important aspects of pain assessment but understanding the sensory aspects of pain is fundamental for providing optimal care in this scenario.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. In DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to hyperglycemia and ketosis. Insulin administration helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are crucial in treating DKA. Administering intravenous fluids helps with dehydration, monitoring urine output is important to assess renal function, but the priority is addressing the underlying cause of DKA by administering insulin. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is incorrect as it would further elevate blood glucose levels, which is contraindicated in DKA.