HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. The caregiver observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces of orange juice. What should the caregiver do next?
- A. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with infant formula instead of orange juice.
- B. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and then feeding the infant.
- C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing for 30 minutes after giving the iron drops.
- D. Give the mother positive feedback about the way she administered the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The high vitamin C content in orange juice aids in the absorption of iron. Providing positive feedback to the mother for administering the iron drops with orange juice is appropriate as it enhances iron absorption, benefiting the infant. Encouraging and acknowledging correct medication administration can help reinforce good practices and build confidence in the caregiver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the beneficial practice of administering iron drops with orange juice, which enhances iron absorption. Changing the method of administration based on incorrect assumptions or instructing to withhold feeding after giving iron drops is unnecessary and not evidence-based.
2. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?
- A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
- B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
- C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
- D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.
3. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?
- A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
- B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
- C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
- D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.
4. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:
- A. HIV infection has been confirmed
- B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
- C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
- D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.
5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Fever
- B. Headache
- C. Nausea
- D. Oliguria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.