HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. The caregiver observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces of orange juice. What should the caregiver do next?
- A. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with infant formula instead of orange juice.
- B. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and then feeding the infant.
- C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing for 30 minutes after giving the iron drops.
- D. Give the mother positive feedback about the way she administered the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The high vitamin C content in orange juice aids in the absorption of iron. Providing positive feedback to the mother for administering the iron drops with orange juice is appropriate as it enhances iron absorption, benefiting the infant. Encouraging and acknowledging correct medication administration can help reinforce good practices and build confidence in the caregiver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the beneficial practice of administering iron drops with orange juice, which enhances iron absorption. Changing the method of administration based on incorrect assumptions or instructing to withhold feeding after giving iron drops is unnecessary and not evidence-based.
2. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is experiencing watery vaginal discharge. What should the nurse tell her?
- A. Inform her that it is normal.
- B. Advise her to see a doctor immediately.
- C. Suggest using panty liners.
- D. Suggest a change in diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informing the pregnant woman that watery vaginal discharge is normal during the first trimester is crucial to providing reassurance and reducing anxiety. This discharge, known as leukorrhea, is common during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It helps maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and protects the birth canal from infection. Advising the woman to see a doctor immediately may cause unnecessary alarm, while suggesting the use of panty liners can help manage the discharge comfortably. Suggesting a change in diet is not relevant to addressing watery vaginal discharge in this scenario.
3. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
- A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
- B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
- C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
- D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.
4. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
- B. Administer morphine sulfate.
- C. Start intravenous fluids.
- D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.
5. Upon arrival in the nursery, a newborn infant is breathing satisfactorily but appears dusky. What action should the LPN/LVN take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- B. Suction the infant's nares, then the oral cavity.
- C. Check the infant's oxygen saturation rate.
- D. Position the infant on the right side.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action in this scenario is to check the infant's oxygen saturation rate. This will provide crucial information on the infant's oxygen levels and the need for immediate oxygen therapy. Assessing oxygen saturation is essential in determining the severity of hypoxia and guiding further interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation. Option A is not the priority as immediate intervention related to oxygenation is needed before notifying the healthcare provider. Suctioning (Option B) may be necessary but should come after assessing oxygen saturation. Positioning the infant (Option D) does not address the immediate need to evaluate oxygen levels.
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