Nursing Elites

1. A client with no prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, 'The baby is coming!' The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the LPN/LVN to obtain?

• A. Gravidity and parity.
• B. Time and amount of last oral intake.
• C. Date of last normal menstrual period.
• D. Frequency and intensity of contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining the date of the last normal menstrual period is crucial in estimating the gestational age of the fetus. This information helps in determining the progression of labor and the management of delivery. It also assists healthcare providers in assessing the overall health of the mother and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are important in labor assessment, but in this scenario, the most crucial information needed is the date of the last normal menstrual period to estimate the gestational age.

2. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is

• A. January 14-15.
• B. January 22-23.
• C. January 30-31.
• D. February 6-7.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.

3. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

• A. Sex and size of the fetus.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Fetal growth and gestational age.
• D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

4. A client who is receiving oxytocin to augment early labor begins to experience tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Reposition the fetal monitor transducers.
• C. Decrease the rate of the oxytocin infusion.
• D. Alert the charge nurse about the patient's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, the priority action is to turn off the oxytocin infusion. This step aims to reduce uterine activity, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to adverse outcomes.

5. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?

• A. Autosomal dominant
• B. Autosomal recessive
• C. X-linked recessive
• D. Mitochondrial

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.

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