Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

• A. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
• B. Help an immature liver.
• C. Improve insufficient dietary intake.
• D. Stimulate the immune system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.' Phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease by promoting blood clotting. Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting, hence the administration to prevent hemorrhagic disorders. Choice B is incorrect because phytonadione is not given to help an immature liver but to supply vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as phytonadione is not administered to improve dietary intake but to provide essential vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as phytonadione does not stimulate the immune system but helps with blood clotting.

2. During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain blood and urine for prenatal screens.
• B. Schedule prenatal visits to occur monthly.
• C. Explain common complications of pregnancy.
• D. Obtain baseline blood pressure and weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.

3. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Clonidine hydrochloride
• B. Carbamazepine
• C. Furosemide
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

4. During a newborn assessment, which symptom would indicate respiratory distress if present in a newborn?

• A. Flaring of the nares.
• B. Shallow and irregular respirations.
• C. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute.
• D. Abdominal breathing with synchronous chest movement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of respiratory distress in newborns. It indicates that the newborn is working hard to breathe, and immediate attention should be given to assess and address the respiratory status of the infant.

5. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

Similar Questions