Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

• A. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
• B. Help an immature liver.
• C. Improve insufficient dietary intake.
• D. Stimulate the immune system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.' Phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease by promoting blood clotting. Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting, hence the administration to prevent hemorrhagic disorders. Choice B is incorrect because phytonadione is not given to help an immature liver but to supply vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as phytonadione is not administered to improve dietary intake but to provide essential vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as phytonadione does not stimulate the immune system but helps with blood clotting.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has increased from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg. Which action is the highest priority?

• A. Provide a quiet environment with subdued lighting.
• B. Have calcium gluconate immediately available.
• C. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) every 4 hours.
• D. Insert a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having calcium gluconate readily available is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate, as it serves as the antidote in case of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest in cases of overdose or toxicity, making the prompt availability of calcium gluconate essential for immediate administration to counteract these effects. Providing a quiet environment with subdued lighting may be beneficial for the client's comfort but is not the highest priority in this situation. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours is important when administering magnesium sulfate, but it is not the highest priority compared to having calcium gluconate available. Inserting a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output is not the highest priority when preparing to administer magnesium sulfate in this scenario.

3. A 6-year-old with heart failure (HF) gained 2 pounds in the last 24 hours. Which intervention is more important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Graph the daily weight for the past week.
• B. Decrease IV flow rate.
• C. Assess bilateral lung sounds.
• D. Restrict intake of oral fluids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing bilateral lung sounds is crucial in this scenario as it can provide essential information about potential fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating worsening heart failure. This assessment can guide immediate interventions to prevent further deterioration in the patient's condition.

4. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is

• A. January 14-15.
• B. January 22-23.
• C. January 30-31.
• D. February 6-7.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

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