Nursing Elites

1. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for onset of polyuria greater than 150ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.

2. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status in a client with cirrhosis and associated ascites and jaundice are indicative of hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. This condition can progress rapidly and lead to coma if not addressed promptly. Peripheral edema (choice A) and increased abdominal girth (choice C) are common manifestations of fluid retention in cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Yellowing of the skin (choice D) is a classic sign of jaundice, which is already known in this client and may not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.

3. A 65-year-old male client with a history of smoking and high cholesterol is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia, especially given the client's symptoms and history. Chest X-ray (Choice B) may be ordered to evaluate the lungs but would not be the initial test for this client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for a client with suspected cardiac issues. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) (Choice D) are used to assess lung function and would not be the first test indicated in this scenario.

4. In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed because of early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
• B. Provide the client with a warm blanket to reduce stiffness.
• C. Delay the procedure until the client is less stiff.
• D. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A warm shower can help reduce morning stiffness, making the procedure more comfortable for the client. This intervention promotes comfort and mobility, addressing the immediate issue of stiffness. Providing a warm blanket (choice B) may offer some comfort but will not address the stiffness as effectively as a warm shower. Delaying the procedure (choice C) may inconvenience the client and not address the underlying stiffness issue. Encouraging range-of-motion exercises (choice D) is important for long-term management but may not provide immediate relief from the stiffness that is hindering the procedure.

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