Nursing Elites

1. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for onset of polyuria greater than 150ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.

2. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Auscultate for renal bruits
• B. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
• C. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones
• D. Begin to strain the client's urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: This elderly client is presenting symptoms consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), such as confusion, nausea, dysuria, urgency, and incontinence. The best course of action for the nurse is to obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen. This specimen will help identify the causative agent of the UTI, allowing for targeted treatment with an appropriate anti-infective agent. Auscultating for renal bruits (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the client's symptoms point towards a UTI rather than a renal issue. Using a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones (Choice C) is not relevant in the context of UTI symptoms. Beginning to strain the client's urine (Choice D) would not address the need to identify the causative agent for targeted treatment.

3. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
• B. Administer anti-inflammatory medication before the procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.
• D. Reschedule the procedure for later in the day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A warm shower can help alleviate stiffness, allowing the client to be more comfortable and mobile before the procedure. This intervention promotes increased comfort and mobility, which may help the client proceed with the procedure later in the day. Administering anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) may be helpful but may take time to be effective, while range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) may be challenging for the client due to stiffness. Rescheduling the procedure (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to alleviate stiffness.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.

5. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?

• A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Report increased bruising or bleeding.
• C. Stop medication if a cough develops.
• D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which lowers platelet count and increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because while ACE inhibitors may cause potassium levels to increase, the instruction should not be to increase intake of potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation, and stopping the medication abruptly is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to limit intake of leafy green vegetables specifically with ACE inhibitors; however, consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is recommended to maintain a stable INR for clients taking anticoagulants.

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