a male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal gi bleeding after adminis
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

4. Before a dressing change to his legs, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining strict aseptic technique is crucial before a dressing change for burn patients to prevent infection. Encouraging the patient to stay at the bedside, using distraction techniques, or placing a drape over the burn area are not as critical as ensuring asepsis in this situation.

5. A client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected question assesses the client's understanding of lifestyle modifications for peptic ulcer disease. Choice D, 'I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer,' is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates that the client has a good grasp of the teaching provided, as alcohol can indeed irritate peptic ulcers. Choices A, B, and C are all accurate statements that reflect appropriate understanding of managing peptic ulcer disease and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

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