Nursing Elites

1. The client is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. “You may experience withdrawal symptoms; these are usually mild.”
• B. “The medication will need to be gradually tapered off.”
• C. “You should increase your caffeine intake to stay alert.”
• D. “There should be no change in your sleep patterns during discontinuation.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When discontinuing sedative-hypnotic medications, it is crucial to gradually taper them off to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because withdrawal symptoms can be severe, not always mild. Choice C is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate sleep disturbances. Choice D is incorrect because changes in sleep patterns are expected during discontinuation of sedative-hypnotic medications.

2. A male hospital employee is pushed out of the way by a female employee because of an oncoming gurney. The pushed employee becomes very angry and swings at the female employee. Both employees are referred for counseling with the staff psychiatric nurse. Which factor in the pushed employee’s history is most related to the reaction that occurred?

• A. Is worried about losing his job to a woman.
• B. Tortured animals as a child.
• C. Was physically abused by his mother.
• D. Hates to be touched by anyone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Was physically abused by his mother.' The pushed employee's aggressive reaction can be attributed to his history of physical abuse. Research suggests that individuals who have experienced physical abuse may exhibit heightened aggressive responses due to trauma and learned behavior. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A is a stereotype-based assumption that does not have a direct correlation with the aggressive behavior observed; B, torturing animals, is concerning behavior but not directly linked to the aggressive response in this scenario; D, hating to be touched, is not the most relevant factor considering the situation described.

3. The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
• D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching about medication management is needed?

• A. “I will take my medication only when I feel like it.”
• B. “I need to follow up with my psychiatrist regularly.”
• C. “I will notify my healthcare provider if I experience side effects.”
• D. “I should avoid alcohol while on my medication.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This statement indicates a lack of understanding about medication management for schizophrenia. Medications for schizophrenia should be taken consistently as prescribed for optimal effectiveness, regardless of how the client feels. Choice B is a correct statement as regular follow-up with a psychiatrist is important for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment. Choice C demonstrates good awareness of potential side effects and the need for communication with healthcare providers. Choice D reflects appropriate knowledge as alcohol can interact with medications and may reduce their effectiveness.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

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