HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
- B. Implement behavioral modification therapy.
- C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
- D. Record daily weights and graph trends.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.
2. The healthcare provider assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?
- A. Hyperaldosteronism causing increased sodium transport ion in renal tubules
- B. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation
- C. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow
- D. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure. This reduction in oncotic pressure contributes to the development of edema in the feet and legs (pitting edema) and ascites in the abdomen. Hyperaldosteronism (choice A) would lead to sodium retention but is not the primary mechanism behind edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation (choice B) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow (choice C) does not play a significant role in the development of edema and ascites in cirrhosis compared to the impact of hypoalbuminemia on colloidal oncotic pressure.
3. A woman is considered to be in menopause if she has experienced the cessation of her menses for a period of:
- A. 6 months
- B. 12 months
- C. 18 months
- D. 24 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Menopause is defined as the cessation of menses for 12 months. This period is significant because it indicates the end of a woman's reproductive years. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the established criteria for defining menopause.
4. The patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin to treat an infection and taking acetaminophen for pain. The nurse should expect to review which lab values when monitoring for this drug’s side effects?
- A. Complete blood counts
- B. Electrolytes
- C. Liver enzymes
- D. Urinalysis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin, which is a macrolide antibiotic, in combination with acetaminophen, a potentially hepatotoxic drug, the nurse should monitor liver enzymes. High doses of macrolides when taken with hepatotoxic drugs like acetaminophen can lead to hepatotoxicity. Reviewing liver enzymes helps in early detection of liver damage. Complete blood counts (Choice A) are not typically affected by azithromycin or acetaminophen. Electrolytes (Choice B) are not directly impacted by these medications. Urinalysis (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for monitoring the side effects of azithromycin and acetaminophen combination therapy.
5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
- B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
- C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
- D. Remove the brace while eating.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.