Nursing Elites

1. A client has undergone renal angiography via the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure upon noting:

• A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
• D. Pallor and coolness of the right leg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pallor and coolness of the right leg indicate a potential vascular complication following renal angiography, such as hemorrhage, thrombosis, or embolism. These signs suggest impaired circulation in the affected limb. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are not typically associated with complications of renal angiography. Complications of this procedure mainly involve allergic reactions to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and various vascular issues.

2. After teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome and a normal glomerular filtration rate, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition?

• A. I must decrease my intake of fat.
• B. I will increase my intake of protein.
• C. A decreased intake of carbohydrates will be required.
• D. An increased intake of vitamin C is necessary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is significant renal loss of protein leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema formation. If glomerular filtration is normal or near normal, increased protein loss should be matched by an increased intake of protein. Therefore, the correct statement indicating a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition is increasing protein intake. Decreasing fat, decreasing carbohydrates, or increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary for addressing the underlying issues associated with nephrotic syndrome.

3. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Ask the client to explain what he means by 'heart trouble.'
• B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
• C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
• D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who will receive 10% calcium gluconate to treat a serum potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse performs a drug history prior to beginning the infusion. Which drug taken by the patient would cause concern?

• A. Digitalis
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide
• C. Hydrocortisone
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered to treat hyperkalemia by reducing myocardial irritability. When given to a patient taking digitalis, it can lead to digitalis toxicity. Digitalis and calcium gluconate both affect cardiac function, and their concomitant use can potentiate adverse effects. Hydrochlorothiazide, Hydrocortisone, and Vitamin D may impact potassium levels, but they do not interact with calcium gluconate in a way that would cause concern for toxicity.

5. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

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