HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. The client with type 2 DM is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which instruction should be included?
- A. Soak your feet in hot water every night.
- B. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
- C. Use a heating pad to warm your feet.
- D. Wear comfortable shoes that allow air circulation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client with type 2 DM regarding foot care is to wear comfortable shoes that allow air circulation. This helps prevent foot injuries and infections, which are common complications in clients with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect as soaking feet in hot water can lead to burns and skin damage. Choice B is incorrect because walking barefoot increases the risk of injury and infection. Choice C is incorrect as using a heating pad can also potentially lead to burns and skin damage.
2. The parents of a 2-year-old child with a history of febrile seizures are being taught by the healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. We should give our child acetaminophen when they have a fever.
- B. We should not place our child in a cool bath during a seizure.
- C. We should call 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes.
- D. We should try to keep our child’s fever under control.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing a child in a cool bath during a seizure is not recommended as it can be dangerous and may lead to accidental drowning or injuries. The priority during a febrile seizure is to ensure the safety of the child by placing them on a soft surface, removing any nearby objects that may cause harm, and gently turning their head to the side to prevent aspiration. Cooling measures like removing excess clothing can be employed, but immersing the child in a cool bath is not advised. Calling 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes is important to seek immediate medical assistance. Administering acetaminophen to reduce fever and trying to keep the child's fever under control are appropriate interventions which should be continued.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Use of accessory muscles
- C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.
4. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
- B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
- C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
- D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.
5. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
- B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
- C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
- D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.