a client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin therapy the nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership HESI

1. A client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Desmopressin, a medication used to treat diabetes insipidus, can cause the retention of water without sodium, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. This occurs because desmopressin increases water reabsorption in the kidneys without affecting sodium levels. Hypernatremia (choice B) is unlikely because desmopressin does not cause excessive sodium retention. Hypokalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for diabetes insipidus.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

4. Nurse Louie is developing a teaching plan for a male client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH plays a crucial role in regulating water balance by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not associated with diabetes insipidus. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is responsible for regulating thyroid function, while FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are involved in reproductive functions.

5. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

Similar Questions

A female client with physical findings suggestive of a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, necessitating a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions provided to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?
A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?
Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:
A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?
In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses